St Paul denies that Christians do evil that a greater good may come of it. But what about allowing evil that a greater good may come of it? Is that permitted? Suppose that killing Jones would make possible the production of a vaccine that would save thousands. This is not permitted. But suppose that I see someone else working in my lab who is going to do this. Am I obliged to stop him, or can I say that although I am not permitted to do evil that good may come of it, I am permitted to allow evil that good may come of it?
There are two interrelated theological arguments that it is permissible to allow evil that greater good may come of it: (1) standard Christian theodicies suggest that God allows evils to happen in order to bring greater goods out of them, and, specifically, (2) the Christian tradition calls the sin of Adam a felix culpa, rejoicing that this sin made possible Christ's salvific sacrifice, and suggests that this is why God permitted that sin.
On the other hand, once one is talking about allowing an evil that good may come of it, one seems to be implying that the evil is intended as a means, a means that one brings about through non-action rather than action. But it is always wrong to intend an evil, since that sets one's will on the evil.
The Christian philosopher thus seems to have a trilemma: either (1) undercut theodicy by insisting that one should not even permit an evil that a greater good may come of it, or (2) deny the basic principle that one should not set one's will on evils, even as means, or (3) hold that ethics is essentially different for God and human beings (and not just different in application, so that God may kill me because he owns my life, while you may not because you don't).
I want to reject the third horn completely. I am going to argue that there is still a way out of the dilemma between (1) and (2).
First take the case of Adam and Eve. Deny Molinism. Then there is no fact of the matter whether Adam would sin unless Adam in fact chooses between good and evil. Therefore (and I suppose an argument is needed here, but I am just going to proceed intuitively--I suspect the blanks can be filled in; I need to refute Frankfurt examples to do this, but that I think should be doable) God cannot ensure that Adam does not sin without taking away Adam's choice between good and evil. What God intentionally allows is Adam's choice between good and evil. Let us suppose he foreknows that the choice is in fact going to be for evil. It does not follow that God intends the choice to be for evil, especially since without Molinism, God's foreknowledge of Adam's choice of evil is going to have to be explanatorily (but not temporally) posterior to God's decision to allow Adam the choice.
Nonetheless, the insight from the tradition that the sin of Adam is a felix culpa is still relevant. For God might be argued to be remiss in intentionally allowing Adam to choose between good and evil if the expected value of the effects choice were too low (this is of course like stuff that Swinburne says). Without actually intending that Adam will sin, God can consider the fact that if Adam sins, things will be even better in the long run than if he doesn't, and this consideration makes it reasonable for God to offer him the choice. (I might allow my child a decision where I know the child might choose something bad if I know that should the child choose the bad thing, a good will come of it, say the child's learning a lesson. In doing so, I need not be intending that the child choose the bad thing, but simply considering the contingencies, and thinking that whatever happens, it won't be bad in the long run, so I can allow the decision to the child.)