Easy Universalism

| 13 Comments

Let me try out this proof of universalism in which perfect goodness and perfect justice seem to coincide. (Inspired by points made in discussion with Ric Otte and AP—neither is responsible for my use of the points).

  1. For all x, no matter how morally evil x chose to be, it is possible that God says, after x’s death, “I commend x for having led a morally perfect life.”

  2. For all x, were God to utter, after x’s death, “I commend x for having led a morally perfect life”, then x would have led a morally perfect life.

  3. If God were (i) to utter, after x’s death, “I commend x for having led a morally perfect life” and (ii) to send x immediately to heaven, then it would display perfect justice and perfect goodness.

  4. For all x, no matter how morally evil x chose to be, God should and does say, after x’s death, “I commend x for having led a morally perfect life” and God should and does send x immediately to heaven.

  5. :. Universalism is true.

I’m worried about this sort of argument, since I’m not at all sure that (1) or (2) is true. Instead of (2), (2’) sounds at least as right to me.

2’. For some x, were God to utter, after x’s death, “I commend x for having led a morally perfect life”, then (per impossibile) God would have uttered a falsehood.

If (2’) is true, then both (1) and (2) are false. Instead of (1), we have (1’).

1’. For some x, it is impossible that God says, after x’s death, “I commend x for having led a morally perfect life.”

The real difficulty here is that there are two ways to resolve these counterfactuals. On some resolutions, (1) and (2) come out true. On others, (1’) and (2’) come out true. My own view is that there is no single correct way to resolve these counterfactuals. But I’d be happy to learn that only one of these resolutions can be right.

NB: Two points: (a) it’s a minor point, but we could replace ‘God says “I commend x for having led a morally perfect life”’ with ‘God says “x led a morally perfect life and I commend x for it”. This is for anyone worried about the inference from “God commends x for doing F” to “x did F”. (b) I assume that each x could lead a morally perfect life, but this is probably not essential to the proof. It might be that each agent could lead an imperfect, but morally excellent life.

13 Comments

Hi Mike

(1) seems true to me. Perhaps God says to Smith, after his death, "I commend you for having led a morally perfect life." And perhaps his reason for doing this is test Smith, or rather, for some reason one knows not what.

(2) seems false to me though. What seems true is (2*)

(2*) For all x, were God to utter, after x’s death, “I commend x for having led a morally perfect life”, then it is probable that x would have led a morally perfect life.

A reason for thinking (1) is true also functions as a reason for think (2*) is true and (2) is false. For x might not have lead a perfect life even if God commends him for living a perfect life. And if it's true that he might not have led a perfect life, then it can't be true that he would have led a perfect life. Anyway, this is one way to assess the counterfactual and its a way that makes (2) false. It assumes that 'would' and 'might not' counterfactuals express contraries. This point would also apply to (3).

I'm not immediately seeing how (4) follows, or is supposed to follow, from (1)-(3). Could you spell it out a bit?

I think that you want (2) to be read, "For all x, if God were to utter, after x's death, 'I commend x for leading a morally perfect life,'then x would have led a morally perfect life, regardless of how morally evil x had chosen to be." But I don't think that (2) need be read this way, even if (1) is true. It may be that in the closest possible worlds in which God says, "I commend x for leading a morally perfect life", x hasn't chosen to be morally evil, even if there is a possible world in which God says this and x has chosen to be morally evil. That possible world may not be close to the actual world and thus not count in the truth conditions of (2).

Interesting idea, but I think the New Testament is sufficient to build a case for universalism.

Mike,

The proof seems to assume trans-world identity of human persons. If you believe counterpart theory, it seems you're committed to the falsity of (1)--at least, literally interpreted. If I exist at @ and only at @, and if it's true that I led a morally imperfect life, it's impossible that God commends me for living a morally perfect life. Since I only exist at @, and led a morally imperfect life there. Maybe it's still possible for God to (properly) commend my counterpart at some other world; but presumably when we're worried about universalism and such matters, we're worried about what happens to *us* strictly speaking, not our counterparts.

I think it probably does boil down to something like the Humphrey objection. So I was probably a bit rash to say that the proof requires TWI, since counterpart theorists no doubt think they have responses to Kripke's challenge, and I'm not up enough on this literature to speak confidently about the plausibility of these replies.

But my general feeling is that Kripke was right--that counterpart theory breaks down precisely in cases like this, where it seems like we have reason to care (perhaps unlike the 5'10'' case) about whether it is us or our counterparts under discussion.

Also, doesn't the truth of (1) and (2) require that nobody is trans-world depraved?

Cool--thanks for the link!

Probably because I don't know enough modal logic, I'm having trouble seeing how this argument supports universalism. Suppose that in the actual world, x chose to act with great evil. In determining the truth value of (2), we don't hold fixed that x has chosen to do evil but instead consider the possible world(s) where x leads a morally perfect life. (From[1], we know that there is at least one such world) But then in (3)and (4), when God says that x led a perfectly moral life and sends x to heaven, doesn't God do so only in the possible world(s) where x led a perfectly moral life, not in the actual world? If so, this seems to me not to amount to universalism, if that is the view that everyone in the actual world is saved: all that (3) and (4) entail is that if x had chosen differently, God should and would have sent x to heaven. Alternatively, if (5) means that God saves x in the actual world because there is a possible world(not identical with the actual world) where x leads a morally perfect life, it isn't evident (at least to me), why God's doing this manifests perfect justice and goodness. We wouldn't think that a judge who exempted a criminal from punishment because he might have chosen otherwise was judging with perfect justice and goodness. What am I missing?

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